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Meeting
Highlights: 2000
Interactive Report
Adjuvant
Systemic Therapy
21.A.
40-year-old premenopausal woman
21.B. 60-year-old woman
has lumpectomy, axillary node dissection for a 0.8 centimeter poorly
differentiated infiltrating ductal carcinoma with one centimeter
margins. Tumor is node-negative, ER/PR+. Patient is scheduled for
radiation therapy. Your suggested additional management:
|
A
|
B
|
Chemotherapy |
40%
|
1%
|
Tamoxifen |
22%
|
80%
|
Chemotherapy
plus tamoxifen |
20%
|
12%
|
No
further therapy |
18%
|
7%
|
Other
|
0%
|
0%
|
Andrew
Seidman, MD
Case A.
We shouldn't lose sight of the fact that patients with sub-centimeter
breast cancers are likely going to be cured from their local therapy.
We have searched high and low over the years to find a poor prognostic
subset of these women who have particularly bad-acting breast cancer.
Here, the histologic grade is of some concern, but still size is
the most important of the prognostic factors available to us in
this case. I would feel entirely comfortable with merely an antiestrogen
approach. The addition of an LHRH analog in a woman who is still
menstruating to tamoxifen is one that certainly is being examined
very carefully. But I would not feel at all uncomfortable using
tamoxifen in this woman as monotherapy.
I would probably
present my bias against chemotherapy. Often the case is that patients
will bring in a list of their HER2-neu, Cathepsin, S-phase, and
then that'll be a 45-minute discussion regarding the meaningfulness
of some of these other prognostic factors. There are people who
certainly would point to S-phase as being a meaningful factor, and
HER2-neu gene amplification as being a factor that might separate
out a subset of women who are at a particularly high risk of relapse.
And I have to admit, I am occasionally influenced by some of these
factors in the sub-centimeter category, particularly when the patient
is ER/PR - negative.
But here we
have the option of intervening in a meaningful way without chemotherapy.
I'm not going to defend the 60 percent that responded, "We
would give this woman chemotherapy."
We had some
information from the overview meta-analysis that the proportional
reduction in recurrence and death for a premenopausal woman on tamoxifen
seems to be similar to that for postmenopausal women. It's just
a new enough concept that tamoxifen alone can be effective adjuvant
therapy for a premenopausal woman. I think that reflects the difference
in audience response based on the patient's age.
Case B.
I agree with the majority here that tamoxifen was appropriate, and
we need to factor in the fact that this woman has a small node-negative
breast cancer, and she's already highly likely to be cured just
from having effective local management.
Clearly, tamoxifen
is appropriate. The benefits of chemotherapy are clearly going to
be marginal, given that her risk is marginal, and the proportional
reduction in the annual odds of recurrence and death is small in
postmenopausal women.
22.
40-year-old premenopausal woman has lumpectomy, axillary node dissection
for a 1.8 centimeter well-differentiated infiltrating ductal carcinoma
with one centimeter margins. Tumor is node-negative, ER/PR+. Patient
is scheduled for radiation therapy. Your suggested additional management:
|
A |
Chemotherapy
|
9%
|
Tamoxifen |
20%
|
Chemotherapy
plus tamoxifen |
68%
|
Ovarian
ablation/suppression alone |
0%
|
Ovarian
ablation/suppression plus other systemic therapy |
3%
|
No
further therapy |
0%
|
Other |
0%
|
Andrew
Seidman, MD
This puts her
into a risk category where I think the contribution of chemotherapy
to tamoxifen is worthwhile. And I would treat this woman as two-thirds
of the respondents would, and that's with chemotherapy as well as
tamoxifen. It would be either CMF or AC.
23.
38-year-old woman, ER+, five positive nodes, six months of doxorubicin-based
chemotherapy and is continuing to menstruate. She prefers not to
receive tamoxifen. Would you offer ovarian ablation?
Andrew
Seidman, MD
Despite chemotherapy,
this patient still has a significant residual risk of distant metastases.
There's clearly a role for an anti-estrogen maneuver here, but if
she had no plans to begin tamoxifen, ovarian ablation would be entirely
appropriate. I would probably stress to this woman that, of those
two maneuvers, tamoxifen is the one associated with the least potential
morbidity.
24.
How many of your patients have received high-dose adjuvant chemotherapy/SCS
in the last nine months?
None
|
80% |
One
|
10%
|
Two |
5% |
Three-five |
3% |
Six-ten
|
1% |
More
than 10 |
1%
|
Andrew
Seidman, MD
I'm surprised
that 20 percent of respondents did have patients who received high-dose
adjuvant chemotherapy, requiring stem cell support, within the last
nine months. That number actually seems high to me on the heels
of the 1999 ASCO meeting, where there was really no clear prospective
data showing benefit. We certainly don't do it outside the context
of a clinical trial.
25.
Should tamoxifen generally be offered to . . . A. patients with
DCIS? B. breast cancer survivors?
|
A |
B |
Yes |
90%
|
76%
|
No |
10% |
24%
|
Andrew
Seidman, MD
Case A.
The answer is yes, because it's something that needs to be discussed
with all patients. Based on the NSABP B-24 data, this is something
that we know will reduce the incidence of invasive breast cancer
and subsequent DCIS. So, it clearly needs to be part of the discussion
for any patient with DCIS.
Case B.
I think this is certainly something that's reasonable to discuss
with patients, because of the chemopreventive potential. Clearly,
there are women whose family histories and own personal history
of invasive breast cancer would make me think of this for
example, a woman who had estrogen receptor-negative breast cancer
whose family history is compelling. Another group are women who
had invasive breast cancer and other pre- malignant histology at
the time of their breast surgery or subsequently have had additional
procedures where they've had atypical hyperplasia, LCIS, DCIS. And
there are many of those women who have lesions other than their
invasive lesions.
26.
Should HER2 status be considered in . . .
A. deciding whether or not to use tamoxifen?
B. selecting a chemotherapeutic regimen?
|
A |
B |
Yes |
23%
|
80%
|
No |
77% |
20% |
Andrew
Seidman, MD
I have developed
a bias toward including an anthracycline for those tumors that are
either HER2neu over-expressing or amplifying. CMF still has a place
for tumors that are non-over-expressing. I agree with the majority
that HER2neu status should not affect the use of tamoxifen.
27.
62-year-old woman with a history of deep vein thrombosis with a
1.8 cm infiltrating ductal ER/PR+ carcinoma with two positive nodes.
Would you discuss the option of receiving an aromatase inhibitor?
Andrew
Seidman, MD
In the very
near future we're going to have a firm sense of the effect of aromatase
inhibitors in the adjuvant setting either alone or perhaps
in combination with SERMS. I can also foresee a time in the future
where aromatase inhibitors may be part of an optimal chemopreventive
strategy. But we need to be driven by data and not by instinct.
Having said that, we all confront patients like this one who require
adjuvant hormonal therapy but cannot receive tamoxifen, and the
most frequent reason is the issue of thromboembolic phenomena. My
understanding is thromboembolic risk is lower with aromatase inhibitors
than tamoxifen, and I have no difficulty in offering an aromatase
inhibitor as adjuvant therapy in this type of situation.
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